{"id":6382,"date":"2010-11-30T12:11:00","date_gmt":"2010-11-30T12:11:00","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.white-baos.com\/contest-spanish-will-application-of-spanish-and-english-law-inheritance-and-probate-of-english-person-in-spain\/"},"modified":"2025-01-13T19:40:16","modified_gmt":"2025-01-13T18:40:16","slug":"contest-spanish-will-application-of-spanish-and-english-law-inheritance-and-probate-of-english-person-in-spain","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.white-baos.com\/en\/contest-spanish-will-application-of-spanish-and-english-law-inheritance-and-probate-of-english-person-in-spain\/","title":{"rendered":"Contest Spanish Will. Application of Spanish and English Law. Inheritance and probate of English person in Spain"},"content":{"rendered":"
My father was English and died in Valencia, Spain a few weeks ago. He had been living in Spain with his second wife, who is not my mother, for the past 10 years. My father owned 100% of a house in Valencia. According to his current wife my father named her as the sole heir of his assets in his Spanish Will. Do I have a right to contest the Spanish Will and forcibly inherit as his daughter? Is it true that as the Will does not appoint me as the beneficiary I have no right to inherit?<\/p>\n
Dear Reader,<\/p>\n
Thank you for your query.<\/p>\n
When we talk about Contest Spanish Will, and, in your case, the first thing that must be determined is which Law should be applied to the administration of your late father\u2019s estate. Either English law (his national law) or Spanish law (being the law of the country where the property is located where he last lived). For practical purposes the difference for you is of vital importance since if the applicable Law is Spanish Inheritance Law. Then you, as his daughter, would be entitled to inherit a share of his assets as per what is called in Spain the legitimate<\/a> (la legitima). Since children are the legitimate and forced heirs, as set out in the Spanish Civil Code.<\/p>\n If, however, the applicable Law is English Law<\/a>, by which in principle everyone is free to dispose of their estate as they wish. You would not be treated in Spain as a forced heir. And therefore what your father set out in his Spanish Will should be respected. At this point we must remember that English law enables certain persons, mainly children and spouses, to challenge a Will;\u00a0 where the deceased was \u2018domiciled\u2019 in England & Wales at date of death and had made insufficient provision for that person<\/p>\n Regarding Contest Spanish Will and in order to determine which Law should be applied, Article 9.8 of the Spanish Civil Code<\/a> should first be considered. This article states that in mortis causa succession the applicable law is the national law of the deceased at the time of death. Irrespective of the nature of the property and the country where they are located.<\/p>\n So, at first glance Spanish Law states that in this case the Law of England & Wales, being your father\u2019s national law, should be applied.<\/p>\n States that: At this point we have to clarify that the concept of domicile as per English law is very different from the Spanish concept. Where it is understood as being the place in which you live or are tax resident. The concept of domicile under English Law is much broader as a person can live in Spain for many years but maintain their domicile in England.<\/p>\n We could therefore reach the conclusion that according to English Law: In practice Spanish Courts understand that according to the principles of unity and universality of Inheritance, it cannot be accepted that the law of one country applies over only a portion of a deceased\u2019s estate. And the law of another country applies over the rest of the estate; it is generally understood that only one law should be applied.<\/p>\nLaw Of England & Wales<\/h2>\n
\n1.-In relation to moveable asses the law of the country of domicile of the deceased should be applied.
\n2.-In relation to immoveable property (Land or buildings) it states that the law of the country where the property is located should apply.
\nTherefore, in accordance with English Law at least in regard to the property that you mentioned, it is understood that the Law to be applied is Spanish Law since this is the country where the villa is located.<\/p>\n
\n1.- Spanish Law<\/a>:would apply for the properties in Spain and also to his other movable assets (bank accounts, investments, etc) if we understand domicile as residency,
\n2.-English Law applies for properties in England and the movable assets if it is understood that your father kept England as his domicile of origin (as per the English concept of domicile).<\/p>\nSpanish Courts<\/h2>\n